At the recommentation of my Greek teacher, I recently bought and am just getting round to reading Con Campbell’s new book on Verbal Aspect in New Testament Greek. Here (and in a few following posts) are some notes thereon.
Genesis 11:6 seems to be really badly (or at least ambigusously) translated in many versions. They say something like “…nothing they plan will be beyond them…”. That’s not, and can’t be, what the verses means.
If it seems that there are not many people in the church who know and use Greek and Hebrew well, then there are even less who know and use Aramaic. Personally I don’t know anyone who knows the language.
I plan, when I finish at WEST to learn some – at least enought to fumble through the Aramaic passages in the Old Testament. I’ve not found many resources online to help this. The only good resources I’ve found so far is Eric Reyond’s introductory lessons.
I’m going to try and work through these lessons as soon as I can (i.e. probably May)…and I’ll let you know how I get on.
If anyone else has used these lessons, or know of other good resources, please let me know…
I’m currently working on my dissertation for my BA at WEST. My title is something like “A Cohesion Analysis of 1 John” (although that may well change before I finish). I’m starting an indefinate series of posts on some findings from my research, hopefully finishing with a completed pdf copy of my dissertation. This is the first post: explaining basically what I’m aiming for…
So far we’ve seen Matthew and Paul forge links between the concept of lawlessness (ἀνομία) and allegiance with the devil. Now we’ll look at the singular occurrence of the word in 1 John 3:4 and see how the wider NT usage helps us makes sense of what John means here.