Mark 12:12

Today’s sermon was on Mark 12:12 this morning. I spotted something I’ve never seen before. v12 reads:

Καὶ ἐζήτουν αὐτὸν κρατῆσαι, καὶ ἐφοβήθησαν τὸν ὄχλον, ἔγνωσαν γὰρ ὅτι πρὸς αὐτοὺς τὴν παραβολὴν εἶπεν. καὶ ἀφέντες αὐτὸν ἀπῆλθον.

But the NIV has:

Then they looked for a way to arrest him because they knew he had spoken the parable against them. But they were afraid of the crowd; so they left him and went away.

Whereas the ESV has, more accurately:

And they were seeking to arrest him but feared the people, for they perceived that he had told the parable against them. So they left him and went away.

See the difference? The logic seems to go like this:

  1. the religious authorites understood Jesus parable to be about them, and they were angry
  2. the crowd also understoof that the parable laid a lot of responsibility at the feet of the religious authorities
  3. the religious authorities feared the crowd because (γαρ) the crowd (as well as the religious authorities) had understood that the parable was about them (the religious authorities.

I had always understood this to mean that the religious authorities feared the crowd because the crowd loved Jesus and if they tried to seize Jesus, then the crowd would turn against them

But it seems like it might be suggesting that the religious authorities feared the crowd because they crowd had also understood that Jesus’ parable was agaisnt them….?


Matt 5:3b and 10b

Call me slow, but I’ve only just noticed the inclusio in these verses. Significant?

Both verses, ie the first and last of the beatitudes have “because to them is the kingdom of heaven”.
If nothing else the inclusio shows that vv3-10 are meant to be read as a whole rather than taken as individual ‘proverbs’. Also it suggests what the key theme of the passage is.